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IBPS Clerk Reasoning Questions and Answers
Cracking the Reasoning section is easy. But all you have to do is practicing the Sample IBPS Clerk Reasoning Free Mock Test Q&A. By practicing them, you can know how many subjects you have regarding the Reasoning Part. To make your task much easier, we have provided all the frequently asked IBPS Clerk Reasoning Online Test Questions and Answers. Not only the IBPS Clerk Reasoning Quiz Questions and Answers, but we have also provided the appropriate Explanations for every question.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Reasoning Online Test Questions & Answers
1. Pointing to a lady, a man said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife.” How is the lady related to the man?
A. Mother’s sister
B. Grandmother
C. Mother-in-law
D. Sister of father-in-law
Answer – D. Sister of father-in-law
Explanation:
Brother of my wife — My brother-in-law
Son of a lady’s brother is the brother-in-law of the man.
So lady’s brother is man’s father-in-law
Hence, the lady is the sister of man’s father-in-law.
2. Varshini’s father, pointing towards a person, said, “He is the brother of my father’s only sibling”. How is the person related to Varshini?
A. Father
B. Uncle
C. Brother
D. Grandfather
Answer – D. Grandfather
Explanation:
Varshini’s father’s father’s only sibling is Varshini’s father’s uncle/aunt is Varshini’s father’s father, that is Varshini’s grandfather.
3. P is the brother of Q. Q is the brother of R. S is the father of P. Based on these three statements, which of the following statements cannot be definitely true?
A. P is the brother of R.
B. R is the brother of P.
C. Q is the brother of P.
D. Q is the son of S.
Answer – B. R is the brother of P.
Explanation:
P is the brother of Q and Q is the brother of R. So, R may be the brother or sister of P.
4. Dinesh is a brother of Rahul. Ramya is the sister of Arjun. Rahul is a son of Ramya. How is Dinesh related to Ramya?
A. Nephew
B. Father
C. Son
D. Brother
Answer – C. Son
Explanation:
Dinesh is the son of Rahul, who is the son of Ramya.
Therefore, Dinesh is the son of Ramya
5. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the women?
A. Nephew
B. Son
C. Cousin
D. Uncle
Answer – C. Cousin
Explanation:
Very simple logic
Brother of mother – uncle
Hence, Uncle’s son – Cousin.
6. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Sister
D. Daughter
Answer – C. Sister
Explanation:
Only son of woman’s grandfather — Woman’s father.
Man’s brother’s father — Man’s father
Therefore, a woman is a man’s sister.
7. If M is the brother of the son of N’s son, how is M related to N?
A. Brother
B. Cousin
C. Grandson
D. Son
Answer – C. Grandson
Explanation:
Son of N’s son – grandson
Hence, Brother of N’s grandson is N’s Grandson.
8. In a certain code, MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in that code?
A. QDFHS
B. SHFDQ
C. HFDSQ
D. RSAFD
Answer – A. QDFHS
Explanation:
If we observe that
The letter of the word is written in reverse order and then each letter is moved one step backward to obtain the code.
MONKEY – YEKNOM => XDJMNL
Similarly, TIGER – REGIT => QDFHS
9. According to military code, SYSTEM is SYSMET and NEARER is AENRER. What is the code for FRACTION?
A. CRAFTING
B. ARFCNOIT
C. CARFNOIT
D. CARFTION
Answer – C. CARFNOIT
Explanation:
Very simple, The letter is the first half and the latter half of the word are separately reversed to obtain the code.
FRACTION => CARFNOIT
10. If MADRAS can be written as NBESBT, how can BOMBAY be written in that code?
A. CPNCBX
B. CPNCBZ
C. CPOCBZ
D. CQOCBZ
Answer – B. CPNCBZ
Explanation:
Each letter in the word is moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.
BOMBAY => CPNCBZ
IBPS Clerk Reasoning Free Mock Test Q&A
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11. If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
A. CAKNCA
B. CADMNO
C. CAKNIT
D. JAKINS
Answer – A. CAKNCA
Explanation:
Each letter of the word is moved four steps backward to obtain the code.
GEORGE => CAKNCA
12. If in certain code MONKEY is written as ZFLOPN then in the same code how CHARACTER is written?
A. SFUBIDDBS
B. SFUDBSBID
C. SFUDBSCID
D. SFUDBEBID
Answer – B. SFUDBSBID
Explanation:
Write the word in reverse order and then shift one place forward
CHARACTER = RETCARAHC (in reverse order) = SFUDBSBID (+1 forward).
13. If in certain code SOFTWARE is written as TOGUXASE then in the same code how WEDNESDAY is written?
A. XEEOETEAZ
B. XEEMETEAZ
C. XEFOETEAZ
D. XEEOETEAY
Answer – A. XEEOETEAZ
Explanation:
All vowels are kept same and consonants are increased one step forward
WEDNESDAY => XEEOETEAZ
14. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
A. Sleet
B. Fog
C. Hailstone
D. Vapour
Answer – D. Vapour
Explanation:
All except Vapour are different forms of precipitation.
15. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
A. Cobbler
B. Shirt
C. Shoe
D. Ring
Answer – A. Cobbler
Explanation:
Cobbler is a human being while all others are used by human beings
16. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
A. Lion
B. Bear
C. Cheetah
D. Leopard
Answer – B. Bear
Explanation:
All except Bear belong to the cat family
17. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
A. Capsicum
B. Pineapple
C. Cherry
D. Strawberry
Answer – A. Capsicum
Explanation:
All except Capsicum, all are fruits.
18. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
A. Phaeton
B. Taxi
C. Cart
D. Rickshaw
Answer – B. Taxi
Explanation:
All except Taxi are pulled by living beings
19. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
A. Nanak
B. Christ
C. Buddha
D. Gandhi
Answer – D. Gandhi
Explanation:
All except Gandhi are founders of religions
20. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
A. Sheet
B. Pillow
C. Cot
D. Quilt
Answer – C. Cot
Explanation:
All except cot are bed-spread parts
21. Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth?
Arguments:
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one.
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies.
A. The only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
Answer – D. Neither I nor II is strong
Explanation:
Europe marketing itself as one will definitely contribute towards Europe’s growth cannot be ascertained. Also, if similar experiments were not successful in other countries then it does not mean that they will not work in Europe as well. So, none of the argument is strong.
22. Statement: Should luxury hotels be banned in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes. They are places where international criminals operate.
II. No. Affluent foreign tourists will not have a place to stay.
A. The only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
Answer – D. Neither I nor II is strong
Explanation:
International criminals can operate from various other places also. So, banning luxury hotels is not the solution to this problem. Hence, an argument I is weak. The comfort of foreign tourists is not a strong enough argument for banning luxury hotels.
Hence, neither I nor II argument is strong.
23. Statement: Next day, millions of pilgrims are expected to take a dip the Ganga at the holy place.
Arguments:
I. The state government should put a restriction on the number of people that can come to take dip each day.
II. During the next whole day, the state government should deploy personnel to maintain law and order.
A. The only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
Answer – B. Only argument II is strong
Explanation:
Since millions of people are expected for 1 day at the Ganga, this means there is some festival or alike. And govt. cant ban entry on any festival.
And yes law and order should be maintained by the police.
24. Statement: The inflation rate is increasing since the last 6 months and there is no sign of it coming down in the next 3-4 months.
Arguments:
I. The government should make an effort by reducing government taxes on essential commodities with immediate effect.
II. The government should ask the farmers to sell their crops at low prices.
A. The Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
Answer – A. The Only argument I is strong
Explanation:
Farmers cannot be asked to do so.
And to reduce inflation course of action I should be a good step.
25. 3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A. 71
B. 61
C. 79
D. 69
Answer – A. 71
Explanation:
Odd series : 3, 5, 7, 9
Even series : 5, 19, 41, ?
Difference of Even series are 14, 22, 30 etc
Next term is 41+30 = 71
26. 125, 80, 45, 20,?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer – A. 5
Explanation:
The pattern is – 45, – 35, – 25, -15
Hence, missing term = 20 – 15 = 5.
27. 28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39
A. 32
B. 34
C. 38
D. 40
Answer – B. 34
Explanation:
The pattern is + 5, – 2, + 5, – 2, +5
Therefore, missing term = 36 – 2 = 34.
28. 7, 8, 18, 57, ?, 1165, 6996
A. 228
B. 542
C. 232
D. 415
Answer – C. 232
Explanation:
Here 2nd number = (1st number * 1 )+1 = (7*1)+1 = 8
3rd number = (2nd number * 2)+2 = (8*2)+2 = 18
4th number = (3rd number * 3 )+3 = (18*3)+3 = 57
Therefore, 5th number = (4th number * 4) +4 = (57*4)+ 4 = 232.
29. Find the wrong term in the series 3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63
A. 15
B. 24
C. 34
D. 48
Answer – C. 34
Explanation:
The difference between consecutive numbers of the given series are respectively 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, and 15.
Therefore, 24+11=35 But in this problem it is given as 34.
Hence, 34 is the wrong number
30. Find out the wrong term in series 1, 5, 9, 15, 25, 37, 49
A. 15
B. 25
C. 37
D. 49
Answer – A. 15
Explanation:
The terms of the given series is 1*1, 2*2 + 1, 3*3, 4*4 +1, 5*5, 6*6 + 1, 7*7
So, 15 is wrong and must be replaced by (4*4 + 1) = 17
31. Seismography: Earthquake:: Tachometer:?
A. Landslides
B. Strains
C. Resistances
D. Volcanoes
Answer – B. Strains
Explanation:
Seismography is an instrument to measure the intensity of an earthquake.
Similarly, a tachometer is an instrument to measure strains.
32. Flow: River:: Stagnant:?
A. Rain
B. Stream
C. Pool
D. Canal
Answer – C. Pool
Explanation:
As Water of a River flows similarly water of Pool is Stagnant.
33. Exhibit: Display:: Send:?
A. Stamp
B. Receive
C. Show
D. Emit
Answer – D. Emit
Explanation:
Exhibit and Display are synonyms for each other.
Similarly, Send and Emit are also synonyms for each other.
34. Transition: Change:: Immobility:?
A. Stillness
B. Liveliness
C. Action
D. Busyness
Answer – A. Stillness
Explanation:
Transition and Change are Synonyms.
Similarly, Immobility and Stillness are Synonyms
35. Microphone: Loud:: Microscope:?
A. Elongate
B. Investigate
C. Magnify
D. Examine
Answer – C. Magnify
Explanation:
As Microphone makes a sound louder
Similarly, Microscope makes the object magnified.
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IBPS Clerk Mains Exam Reasoning Free Mock Test Questions & Answers
1. Garbage:: Hose:: Gangue: ?
a) Factory
b) Drugs
c) Office
d) Ore
Answer (D)
Explanation: Garbage is wasted or spoiled food and Hose is a flexible tube conveying water/ other liquids. Similarly, Gangue is the commercially valueless material in which ore is found. Hence, option(d.) is the correct answer.
2. If in a certain code DOCUMENT is written as GMVNFXLW then in the same code how CLASSIC is written?
a) XRHHZOF
b) XRHHXOZ
c) XRHHZOX
d) XRHHZXY
e) None of these
Answer (C)
Explanation
write the word in reverse order like CISSALC and now write their opposites (AZ, BY, CX, DW and so on)
3. If the letters of the word MESSENGER are arranged such that all the vowels alphabetically occupy the starting positions, and all consonants alphabetically occupy the positions succeeding the vowels, then a position of how many letters is not changed?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
Answer (C)
Explanation
MESSENGER
EEEGMNRSS
E and N
4. How many pairs of letters are there in the word RYTHMICAL, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
Answer (C)
Explanation
Forward – RT, IL
(Directions 5 – 6): A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 32 69 56 88 47 94 54
Step I: 94 32 69 56 88 47 54
Step II: 94 69 56 88 47 54 32
Step III: 94 88 69 56 47 54 32
Step IV: 94 88 69 56 54 32 47
Step V: 94 88 69 56 32 47 54
Step V is the last step for the given input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the questions for the following input.
Input: 11 19 25 39 61 70 48 36
5. Which of the following is the second last step?
1) 70 61 48 39 11 19 25 36
2) 39 61 48 70 25 11 19 36
3) 70 61 48 39 36 11 19 25
4) 39 48 61 70 25 19 11 36
5) None of these
Answer (3)
Explanation
By observing the given input and output, some numbers are arranged in descending order in the left end and some numbers are arranged in ascending order in the right end. From one step to the next step, one operation takes place.
From input to step I, the largest number and second largest number is shifted to the left end.
From step I to step II, the smallest number and second smallest number is shifted to the right end. This process is continued until we get the desired output.
Input: 11 19 25 39 61 70 48 36
Step I: 70 11 19 25 39 61 48 36
Step II: 70 19 25 39 61 48 36 11
Step III: 70 61 19 25 39 48 36 11
Step IV: 70 61 25 39 48 36 11 19
Step V: 70 61 48 25 39 36 11 19
Step VI: 70 61 48 39 36 11 19 25
Step VI: is the final step
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) Butterfly
2) Crow
3) Pigeon
4) Parrot
5) Peacock
Answer (1)
Explanation: Remaining all are birds
7. DBU : EEZ : : CJH : ?
a) DMN
b) DNM
c) DNN
d) DMM
Answer (D)
Explanation: DBU —— (+1)(+3)(+5)————- EEZ;
CJH—— (+1)(+3)(+5)————- DMM.
Directions: In Question Nos. 8 to 13, find the odd word/ letters/ number from the given alternatives.
8. a) Lawyer
b) Legislator
c) Mayor
d) Governor
Answer (A)
Explanation: All except lawyer are government officials. Hence, option (a.) is the correct answer.
9. a) Acute
b) Parallel
c) Right
d) Obtuse
Answer (B)
Explanation: All except parallel are types of angles. Hence, option (b.) is the correct answer.
10. a) 50
b) 120
c) 37
d) 145
Answer (C)
11. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks were 56% of the sum of their marks. What are the marks obtained by them?
A. 42, 33
B. 44, 36
C. 43, 36
D. 42, 36
Answer (A)
Explanation:
Let the marks secured by them be x and (x + 9) respectively.
Then, sum of their marks = x + (x + 9) = 2x + 9
Given, (x + 9) was 56% of the sum of their marks.
=> (x+9) = 56/100(2x+9).
=> (x+9) = 14/25(2x+9).
=> 25x + 225 = 28x + 126.
=> 3x = 99.
=> x = 33.
Then, (x + 9) = 33 + 9 = 42
Hence, their marks are 33 and 42.
12. If log (base 10) 5 + log (base 10) (5x + 1) = log (base 10) (x + 5) + 1, then x is equal to:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
Answer (B)
Explanation
Given,
=> log(base 10) 5 + log(base 10)(5x + 1) = log(base 10)(x + 5) + 1
=> log(base 10) 5 + log(base 10)(5x + 1) = log(base 10)(x + 5) + log(base 10) 10
=> log(base 10)[5 (5x + 1)] = log(base 10) [10(x + 5)]
=> 5(5x + 1) = 10(x + 5)
=> 5x + 1 = 2x + 10
=> 3x = 9
=> x = 3
13. All beans are pulses
All pulses are crops
No crop is a seed
CONCLUSIONS
(I) No seed is a bean
(II) No bean is a pulse.
A. Both conclusion I and II follow
B. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows
C. Only Conclusion I follows
D. Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows
E. Only Conclusion II follows
Answer (C)
14. In a certain code, ‘INACTIVE’ is written as VITCANIE. How is ‘COMPUTER’ written in that code?
A. UTEPMOCR
B. MOCPETUR
C. ETUPMOCR
D. PMOCRETU
Explanation:
There are 8 letters in the word. In the given code the fourth and the eighth letters from left have been left intact. The first letter exchanges position with the seventh letter, the second letter with the sixth letter and the third with the fifth letter
15. If all the letters of the word ‘DEPRECIATION’ are arranged in the alphabetical order then the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. More than three
Answer (C)
Explanation
After arranging the letters in alphabetical order:
ACDEEIINOPRT
On comparing both the words:
D E P R E C I A T I O N
A C D E E I I N O P R T
Here, the position of two letters ‘A’ and ‘I’ is unchanged.
16. Conclusion: I. Some bats are cats.
II. All cats are mats.
Statements:
1) All bats are cats. All cats are rats. All rats are mats.
2) All bats are cats. Some mats are bats. Some cats are rats.
3) All cats are rats. All rats are mats. Some bats are mats.
4) Some bats are cats. No mat is rat. All cats are rats.
5) None of these
Answer (1) All bats are cats. All cats are rats. All rats are mats.
Explanation
17. Manoj and Sachin are ranked seventh and eleventh respectively from the top in a class of 31 students. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class?
A. 20th and 24th
B. 24th and 20th
C. 25th and 21st
D. 26th and 22nd
E. None of these
Answer (B)
Explanation
Number of students behind Manoj in rank = (31 – 7) = 24. So, Manoj is 25th from the bottom. Number of students behind Sachin in rank = (31 – 11) = 20. So, Sachin is 21st from the bottom.
18. Coded Inequalities:
Statements: R $ M, M%H, H$F
Conclusions:
(I) R % F
(II) M$F
A. If only conclusion I is true.
B. If only conclusion II is true.
C. If either conclusion I or II is true.
D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E. If both conclusions I and II are true
Explanation:
R ≤ M < H ≤ F. Hence, R< F. Conclusion I is true.
As M< F, conclusion II is not true.
19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) Veena
2) Drum
3) Sitar
4) Guitar
5) Tambura
Answer (2)
Explanation: Remaining all are string instruments
20. In a certain way if 70 is related to 19, 61 is related to 11, then which number is related to 36 in step V?
1) 36
2) 39
3) 70
4) 48
5) 25
Answer (4)
Explanation: Similarly, done in the above
(Q. 21-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. For a recruitment process in an organization, the candidates need to possess the following qualifications/ criteria.
I. A graduate in science with atleast 60% marks.
II. An age of at least 25 years and not more than 40 years as on 01.08.2016
III. Have post-qualification work experience of at least 2 years.
IV. Should have secured 55% marks in the selection procedure.
However, if the candidate fulfills the above-mentioned criteria except
(A) at (I) and if the candidate is not a graduate in Science but has a post-graduation degree with a minimum of 60% marks, he/she should be referred to the HR Manager of the organization.
(B) at (III) and if the candidate fulfills all the eligibility criteria but of post-qualification work experience but has secured 75% of marks in the selection process, he/she may be referred to the Director of the organization
Based on the above information study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All the cases are given to you as on 01.08.2016
Questions:
21. Shalini has 4 years of post-qualification work experience in a top organization. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process. Born on 5.10.1990. she has completed her Bachelor’s degree in Physics and secured 66% marks in it.
Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager.
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (A) – if the candidate is to be selected.
22. Peter has 6 years of post-qualification work experience. His Date of Birth is 12.04.1988. He has secured 58% marks in the selection process. He has completed graduation in Science and scored 76% in it.
Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (A) – if the candidate is to be selected.
23. Harshita has done graduation and post-graduation in Physics and has secured 57% and 65% marks respectively. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process and has a post-qualification work experience of three years.
Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (E) – if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
24. Ahmed has completed graduation and post-graduation in Economics from Bhopal in and has secured 51% and 68% marks respectively. His Date of Birth is 26.11.1980. He has been working as an executive in a reputed firm from 2006 till date. He has secured 56% marks in the selection process.
Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (C) – if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
25. Varun has secured 79% marks in the selection process. He has completed graduation in BSc with 67%. His Date of Birth is 09.03.1987. and has a post-qualification work experience of one year. Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (D) if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
26. Deepak has completed graduation and post graduation in Geography with 68% and has secured 57% marks in the selection process. His Date of Birth is 11.11.1985.
Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (E) – if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
27. Asmita has 4 years of post-qualification work experience. She has done graduation in Botany, scoring 71% marks in it. Born on 22.01.1989. She has secured 53% marks in the selection process.
Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (B) if the candidate is not to be selected
28. Veena’s Date of Birth is 06.02.1988. She has done her graduation and post-graduation in commerce and secured 59% and 62% marks respectively. She has post-qualification work experience as a senior executive of 3 years and has secured 59% marks in the selection process.
Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (C) if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
29. Tanya has been working in a leading organization since the completion of post-graduation in 1996. She was born on 11.11.1974. She is a graduate and post-graduate in Science and has secured more than 60% at both graduates as well as postgraduate level. She has secured 71% marks in the selection process.
Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (B) if the candidate is not to be selected
30. Naveen has done graduation in Chemistry, scoring 69% marks in it. His date of birth is 12.11.1990. He has ranked first in the selection process and has secured 82% marks in it. He has 4 months of post-qualification work experience.
Mark answer
A. if the candidate is to be selected.
B. if the candidate is not to be selected.
C. if the candidate may be referred to the HR – Manager
D. if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
E. if the data provided is inadequate to take the decision
Answer (D) if the candidate may be referred to the Director.
31. What is the code for ‘organic’ in the given code language?
A) gs
B) cr
C) da
D) pt
E) Other than those given as options
Answer (B)
From statements 1 and 3, the common word is organic. Thus, organic is coded as = ‘cr’
32. How many pairs of letters are there in the word CHANNEL each of letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A. None
B. One
C. Four
D. Two
Answer (D)
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. 72
B. 42
C. 155
D. 116
Answer (C)
34. What time does the office start working?
I. Some employees reach office at 9:00 am.
II. Some employees reach office at 4:00 pm.
A. data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question
B. data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
C. data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer (D)
35. Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. None
Answer (B)
Explanation: From the first two statements, we know that of the three teams, Team A has scored the highest number of goals, so the third statement is necessarily false.
36. Deepika tells Shraddha “Your mother’s father’s own son is the husband of my sister.” How is Deepika related to Shraddha?
a) Sister-in-law
b) Cousin
c) Aunt
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Answer (C)
37. Find the next number in the sequence:
104, 109, 115, 122, 130…..
A. 119
B. 125
C. 139
D. 134
Answer: C
Explanation
104 + 5= 109
109 + 6 = 115
115 + 7 = 122
122 + 8 = 130
130 + 9 = 139
38. Moon : Satellite : : Earth : ?
A. Sun
B. Planet
C. Solar System
D. Asteroid
Answer (B)
Explanation
Moon is a satellite and earth is a planet
39. RQP, ONM, LKJ, _____, FED
A. IHG
B. CAB
A. JKL
B. GHI
Answer (A)
Explanation
This sequence consists of letters in the reverse alphabetical order
40. If 72 x 96 = 6927, 58 x 87 = 7885, then 79 x 86 = ?
(A) 7689
(B) 8976
(C) 6897
(D) 6978
Answer (C)
41. Mrs. Jansen recently moved to Arizona. She wants to fill her new backyard with flowering plants. Although she is an experienced gardener, she isn”t very well-versed in what plants will do well in the Arizona climate. Also, there is a big tree in her backyard making for shady conditions and she isn”t sure what plants will thrive without much direct sunlight. Her favorite gardening catalog offers several backyard seed packages. Which one should Mrs. Jansen choose?
A. Mrs. Jansen recently moved to Arizona. She wants to fill her new backyard with flowering plants. Although she is an experienced gardener, she isn”t very well-versed in what plants will do well in the Arizona climate. Also, there is a big tree in her backyard making for shady conditions and she isn”t sure what plants will thrive without much direct sunlight. Her favorite gardening catalog offers several backyard seed packages. Which one should Mrs. Jansen choose?
B. Mrs. Jansen recently moved to Arizona. She wants to fill her new backyard with flowering plants. Although she is an experienced gardener, she isn”t very well-versed in what plants will do well in the Arizona climate. Also, there is a big tree in her backyard making for shady conditions and she isn”t sure what plants will thrive without much direct sunlight. Her favorite gardening catalog offers several backyard seed packages. Which one should Mrs. Jansen choose?
C. The Oasis Collection includes a variety of perennials that thrive in dry climates and bright sunlight.
D. The Treehouse Collection will provide lush green plants with delicate colorful flowers that thrive in shady and partially shady locations.
Answer (D)
Explanation:
The Treehouse Collection will provide lush green plants with delicate colorful flowers that thrive in shady and partially shady locations.
42. ELEPHANT : PACHYDERM
(A) mantis : rodent
(B) poodle : feline
(C) kangaroo : marsupial
(D) zebra : horse
(E) tuna : mollusk
Answer (C)
43. CMM, EOO, GQQ, _____, KUU
A. GRR
B. GSS
C. ISS
D. ITT
Explanation:
The first letters are in alphabetical order with a letter skipped in between each segment: C, E, G, I, K. The second and third letters are repeated; they are also in order with a skipped letter: M, O, Q, S, U
44. The code for the words ‘MOVIE TICKET’ is?
A. @20L, #24F
B. #10P, #38R
C. #10L, @40R
D. @24J, #12H
E. None of these
Answer (C)
Explanation
For Symbol:
If total numbers of word is even then we use @
If total numbers of word is odd then we use #
For Number = 2 × value of the last alphabet of the word
Letter = Opposite of the 2nd alphabet of the word
MOVIE TICKET = #10L, @40R
45. What is the code for ‘FINAL’?
A. @40L
B. #24S
C. #18S
D. @26I
E. #24R
Answer (E)
Explanation:
For Symbol:
If total numbers of word is even then we use @
If total numbers of word is odd then we use #
For Number = 2 × value of the last alphabet of the word
Letter = Opposite of the 2nd alphabet of the word
FINAL = #24R
46. In a family, A and E are husband and wife. B is the brother-in-law of E. D is the father-in-law of E. How is D related to B?
(A) Brother
(B) Mother
(C) Father
(D) Father-in-law
(E) Daughter
Answer (C)
47. 6, 12, 1, 13, 5 is to flame as 2, 12, 15, 1, 20 is to ?
A. voice
B. bald
C. bloat
D. castle
Answer (C)
Explanation
6,12,1,13,5 each number in the break up signifies the corresponding letter in the alphabet. (viz. 6->f, 12->l…etc.) Similarly 2,12,15,1,20 which signifies bloat.
48. At a conference, 12 members shook hands with each other before & after the meeting. How many total numbers of handshakes occurred?
A. 100
B. 122
C. 132
D. 145
Answer (C)
Explanation
The first person shook hands with 11 remaining people, the second person also shook hands with 11 people, but we count 10, as the handshake with the first person has already been counted. Then add 9 for the third person, 8 for the fourth one & proceeding in this fashion we get: 11 + 10 + 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 66. Hence 66 handshakes took place before & 66 after the meeting, for a total of 132.
49. A man said to a woman, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt.” How is the woman related to the man?
a) Granddaughter
b) Daughter
c) Sister
d) Aunt
e) None of these
Answer (C)
50. Sculptor : Statue :: Poet: ?
A. Canvas
B. Pen
C. Verse
D. Chisel
Answer (C)
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