RRB NTPC Reasoning Questions and Answers PDF with Explanation: Dear RRB job aspirants, here is good news for you. In this article, we have provided various RRB NTPC reasoning questions and answers which we have collected after thorough research and analysis. The provided RRB NTPC reasoning quiz will help you to crack the RRB NTPC exam. RRB NTPC exam will be conducted in 2 stages. 1st stage consists of 30 reasoning questions and 2nd stage consists of 35 questions. One must clear both the exams to move to the next level in the RRB NTPC selection process.
★★ Free RRB NTPC Stage 1 Mock Tests ★★
As you know, there is a huge competition for the RRB NTPC exam. Every year, lakhs of job seekers try their luck to secure a job in Indian Railways. So to get better marks in the RRB exam, one needs to practice well. To make you perfect in the Logical & Analytical reasoning sections, we have provided various RRB NTPC reasoning questions and answers in PDF format as well as in quiz format.
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RRB NTPC Reasoning Questions Topics
Number of Reasoning Questions Asked in Stage I – 30 Questions
Number of Reasoning Questions Asked in Stage II – 35 Questions
In the below table, we have given RRB NTPC reasoning topics that may come in the actual RRB NTPC exam. By clicking on the below topics, you can practice topic wise reasoning questions.
| RRB NTPC Reasoning Topics |
|---|
| Analytical Reasoning |
| Coding and Decoding |
| Logical Deduction |
| Logical Problems |
| Analyzing Arguments |
| Decision Making |
| Number Series |
| Logical Sequence of words |
| Assertion and Reason |
| Critical Reasoning |
| Blood Relations |
| Inferences |
| Puzzles |
| Data Sufficiency |
| Venn Diagrams |
| Statements & Arguments |
| Statements & Assumptions |
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RRB NTPC Reasoning Questions and Answers with Solutions & Explanation
Here are some of the old/ previous RRB NTPC reasoning questions and answers. Practice more to manage your time well in the exam. As you know, time management is the key in every competitive exam.
Stage 1
1. If in a certain code MANGO is written as LBLIL then in the same code how MONKS is written?
A. LPLMP
B. PLLMP
C. LPMPL
D. MLPAL
Answer – A. LPLMP
Explanation:
If we observe
-1, +1, -2, +2, -3 pattern follows
Now, MONKS = LPLMP.
2. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that code?
A. CPNCBX
B. CPNCBZ
C. CPOCBZ
D. CQOCBZ
Answer – B. CPNCBZ
Explanation:
Each letter in the word is moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.
3. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the code for SEARCH?
A. 246173
B. 214673
C. 214763
D. 216473
Answer – B. 214673
Explanation:
Given ROSE = 6821
CHAIR = 73456
PREACH = 961473
Compare the letter with a similar number in that position
Then, we can code
SEARCH = 214673
4. If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT will be equal to
A. 39
B. 41
C. 44
D. 46
Answer – D. 46
Explanation:
In the given code, A = 2, B = 4, C = 6,…. , Z = 52.
So, ACT = 2 + 6 + 40 = 48 and
BAT = 4 + 2 + 40 = 46
5. If a train is called the bus, a bus is called tractor, the tractor is called car, the car is called scooter, a scooter is called bicycle, a bicycle is called moped, which is used to plow a field?
A. Train
B. Bus
C. Car
D. Tractor
Answer – C. Car
Explanation:
A ‘tractor’ is used to plow a field.
But a ‘tractor’ is called ‘car’.
6. If E = 5 and READ is coded as 7, then what is the code of ‘DEAR’?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Answer – B. 7
Explanation:
Here E = 5 = 5/1 = 5
READ = 18 + 5 + 1 + 4 = 28/4 = 7
DEAR = 4 + 5 + 1 + 18 = 28/4 = 7
7. If wall is called window, window is called door, door is called floor, floor is callled roof and roof is callled ventilator, what will a person stand on ?
A. Roof
B. Window
C. Wall
D. Floor
Answer – A. Roof
Explanation:
A person will stand on the ‘floor’ and ‘floor’ is called ‘roof’.
So, a person will stand on the ‘roof’
8. If Monday falls on 5th of a month, then which day will fall three days after the 26th?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday
Answer – D. Thursday
Explanation:
5th is Monday, then 12, 19, 26th also Monday
Therefore, 3 days after is 29th, which is Thursday
9. If 1st October is Sunday, then 1st November will be
A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Tuesday
Answer – B. Wednesday
Explanation:
Clearly, 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, and 29th October are Sundays.
Then, 31st October is Tuesday.
Hence, 1st November will be Wednesday.
10. If every second Saturday and all Sundays are holidays in a 30 days month beginning on Saturday, then how many working days are there in that month? (Month starts from Saturday)
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer – D. 23
Explanation:
As the month begins on Saturday, so 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th days will be Sundays. While 8th and 22nd days are second Saturdays. Thus, there are 7 holidays in all. Hence, no. of working days = 30 – 7 = 23
11. In a row of students, Ravi is 9th from the left and Suresh is 6th from the right. When they both interchange their positions then Ravi will be 15th from the left. What will be the position of Suresh from the right?
A. 6th
B. 12th
C. 13th
D. 15th
Answer – B. 12th
Explanation:
The position of Suresh from right
According to the given information
= (Difference of Ravi ‘s position + First position of Suresh)
= ((15 – 9) + 6) = 12th
Therefore, the position of Suresh from the right = 12th.
12. In a line of students, Mahesh is on 15th position from right and Dheeraj is on 18th position from left. When they both interchange their positions then Mahesh is on 20th position from the right. What will be the position of Dheeraj from left?
A. 18th
B. 24th
C. 23rd
D. 20th
Answer – C. 23rd
Explanation:
Second place of Dheeraj from left
By Analyzing the given data
= [ Difference of places of Mahesh + First place of Dheeraj ]
= [ (20 – 15) + 18 ] = 23rd
13. If 9th of the month falls on the day preceding Sunday, on what day will 1st of the month fall?
A. Friday
B. Saturday
C. Sunday
D. Monday
Answer – A. Friday
Explanation:
According to the question,
Given, 9th of the Month = Saturday (Preceding Sunday)
Well, the same day will repeat after 7 days.
Therefore, 9 – 7 = 2nd of the given month is also Saturday.
1st of the given month = Saturday – 1 day = Friday
Hence, Day 1st of the month will be Friday.
14. If three days before yesterday was Friday, what day will be a day after tomorrow?
A. Monday
B. Sunday
C. Saturday
D. Wednesday
Answer – D. Wednesday
Explanation:
Here, Three days before today was Friday.
Hence, Today is Monday.
Therefore, the day after tomorrow will be Wednesday.
15. If day after tomorrow is Saturday what day was 3 days before yesterday?
A. Sunday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday
Answer – A. Sunday
Explanation:
Today is Saturday – 2 = Thursday
Now, Yesterday – Wednesday
Wednesday – 3 days = Sunday
Hence, the required day will be on Sunday.
16. Choose the word which is least like the other word in a group?
A. Parrot
B. Vulture
C. Swan
D. Sparrow
Answer – C. Swan
Explanation:
Swan is the only water bird in the group.
17. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related?
A. Joule: Energy
B. Ampere: Current
C. Pascal: Pressure
D. Radian: Degree
Answer – D. Radian: Degree
Explanation:
In all other pairs, first is a unit to measure the second.
18. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related?
A. Man: Mob
B. Cow: Herd
C. Sheep: Flock
D. Fish: Shoal
Answer – A. Man: Mob
Explanation:
In all other pairs, second is a collective group of the first.
19. Choose the number which is different from others in the group?
A. 137
B. 177
C. 121
D. 183
Answer – C. 121
Explanation:
121 is the only perfect square number in the group.
20. Choose the number which is different from others in the group?
A. 17
B. 27
C. 29
D. 37
Answer – B. 27
Explanation:
Except 27, all given numbers are prime numbers.
21. Choose the number pair which is different from others?
A. 45, 27
B. 30, 18
C. 20, 10
D. 15, 12
Answer – C. 20, 10
Explanation:
In all other pairs, the given pair numbers have 3 as the common factor.
22. Choose the number pair/group which is different from others?
A. 12: 96
B. 13: 117
C. 15: 120
D. 16: 128
Answer – B. 13: 117
Explanation:
If we observe
In all other pairs, the second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 8.
23. Statement: Should all the unauthorized structures in the city be demolished?
Arguments:
I. No, Where will the people residing in such houses live?
II. Yes, This will give a clear message to the general public and they will refrain from constructing unauthorized buildings.
A. The only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
Answer – B. Only argument II is strong
Explanation:
The demolition of unauthorized buildings would teach a lesson to the unscrupulous builders and also serve as a warning for the citizens not to indulge in such activities in the future. This is essential, as unauthorized constructions impose an undue burden on the city’s infrastructure. So, only argument II holds strong.
24. Statement: Should Indian scientists working abroad be called back to India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, They must serve the motherland first and forget about discoveries, honors, facilities and all.
II. No, We have enough talent; let them stay where they want.
A. The only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
Answer – D. Neither I nor II is strong
Explanation:
Clearly, every person must be free to work wherever he wants and no compulsion should be made to confine one to one’s own country. So, an argument I is vague. However, talented scientists can be of great benefit to the nation and some alternatives as special incentives or better prospects may be made available to them to retain them within their motherland. So, argument II also does not hold.
25. Statement: Should colleges be given the status of a university in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, Colleges are in a better position to assess the student’s performance and therefore the degrees will be more valid.
II. No, It is Utopian to think that there will not be nepotism and corruption in awarding degrees by colleges.
A. The only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
Answer – D. Neither I nor II is strong
Explanation:
Clearly, at the college level, all the students are assessed according to their performance in the University Exams and not on the basis of any criteria of more intimate dealing with the students. So, an argument I is vague. Also, at this level, the awarding of degrees is impartial and simply based on his performance. So, argument II also does not hold.
26. Statement: Should internal assessment in colleges be abolished?
Arguments:
I. Yes, This will help in reducing the possibility of favoritism.
II. No, teaching faculty will lose control over students.
A. The only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
Answer – A. The Only argument I is strong
Explanation:
Abolishing the internal assessment would surely reduce favoritism on personal grounds because the teachers would not be involved in the examination system so that they cannot extend personal benefits to anyone. So, an argument I hold strong. But it will not affect the control of teaching faculty on students because still, the teachers would be teaching them. So, argument II is vague.
27. Match: Victory:: Examination:?
A. Write
B. Appear
C. Success
D. Attempt
Answer – C. Success
Explanation:
One of the outcomes of “Match” is “Victory”.
In the same way, “Success” is one of the outcomes of “Examination”.
28. Error : Mistake:: Doubt:?
A. Retaliation
B. Poetry
C. Art
D. Suspicion
Answer – D. Suspicion
Explanation:
“Error” and `Mistake’ are synonyms to each other
As well as “Doubt” and “Suspicion” are also synonyms to each other.
29. Hour: Second:: Tertiary:?
A. Ordinary
B. Secondary
C. Primary
D. Intermediary
Answer – C. Primary
Explanation:
“Second” is the third position after “Hour” in time measurement.
Similarly, “Tertiary” is the third position after “Primary” in the order of ranking.
30. Bank: Money:: Transport:?
A. Goods
B. Road
C. Movement
D. Traffic
Answer – A. Goods
Explanation:
A “Bank” deals with the transaction of “Money”
In the same way “Transport” deals with the movement of “Goods”.
Stage 2
1. 289 : 17 ∷ 961 : ?
(a) 29
(b) 31
(c) 27
(d) 19
Answer: (b) – 31
2. What is represented by the number ‘1’?
(a) Unmarried placed graduate
(b) Married unplaced graduate
(c) Placed married graduates
(d) Married placed undergraduates
Answer: (c) – Placed married graduates
3. 10, 29, 66, 127, ?
(a) 330
(b) 115
(c) 218
(d) 273
Answer: (c) – 218
4. TR : VX : : MK : ?
(a) QP
(b) QR
(c) OP
(d) OQ
Answer: (d) – OQ
5. 13, 25, 49, 85, ?
(a) 331
(b) 133
(c) 132
(d) 381
Answer: (b) – 133
6. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives
97 : 63 : : 67 : ?
(a) 38
(b) 56
(c) 42
(d) 45
Answer: (c) – 42
7. If ‘cat’ And ‘boat’ Are Written As Xzg And ‘ylzg’ Respectively In A Code
Language How Is ‘egg’ To Be Written In The Same Language?
(a) Vss
(b) Urr
(c) Vtt
(d) Utf
Answer: (c) – Vtt
8. In a certain code language, ‘kew xas huma deko’ means ‘she is eating apples’;
‘kew tepo qua’ means ‘she sells toys’ and ‘sul lim deko’ means ‘I like apples’.
Which word in that language means ‘she’ and ‘apples’?
(a) xas & deko
(b) xas & kew
(c) kew & deko
(d) kew & xas
Answer: C
9. Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence.
1. Infection
2. Consultation
3. Doctor
4. Treatment
5. Recovery
(a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
(b) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
Answer: (b) – 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
10. Dinesh is a brother of Rahul. Ramya is the sister of Arjun. Rahul is a son of Ramya.
How is Dinesh related to Ramya?
(a) Nephew
(b) Father
(c) Son
(d) Brother
Answer: (c) – Son
11. Seismography: Earthquake:: Tachometer:?
(a) Landslides
(b) Strains
(c) Resistances
(d) Volcanoes
Answer: (b) Strains
12. Moon : Satellite : : Earth 😕
(a) Sun
(b) Planet
(c) Solar System
(d) Asteroid
Answer: (b)
13. TER_TE_S_ER_
(a) TERT
(b) STTT
(c) STRS
(d) SRTS
Answer: (d) – SRTS
14. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Lemon
(b) Carrot
(c) Beetroot
(d) Turnip
Answer: (b), (c), (d) – Except lemon, rest three grows under the ground.
15: Paw : Cat : : Hoof : ?
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Lamb
(d) Elephant
Answer: (a) – Horse
16. Errata : Books : : flaws:?
(a) Manuscripts
(b) Metals
(c) Speech
(d) Charter
Answer: (b) – Metals
17. How many pairs of letters are there in the word COMPLAINT, each of which have as many letters between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) Three
Answer: (d) – Three
18. In a certain code language,
‘Attend class daily good’ is written as 9$5, 24%9, 3$6, 24*3
‘Less error and fire’ is written as 10$7, 23%8, 9%14, 24&3
‘Begin great any matter’ is written as 3&3, 8$9, 10*15, 14$4
‘Tool better than screw’ is written as 16%22, 5$21, 10*4, 14%22
The code for the word ‘ great’
(a) 3&3
(b) 8$9
(c) 10*15
(d) 14$4
Answer: (b) – 8$9
19. Capital of Nagaland is
(a) Dimapur
(b) Kohima
(c) Mokokchung
(d) Tezpur
Answer: (b) – Kohima
20. Y2 : 4 : : V2 : ?
(a) 16
(b) 49
(c) 9
(d) 25
Answer: (d) – 25
21. Conclusion:
All monkeys being aero planes is a possibility. All notes being aero planes is a possibility
Statements:
- Statements – 1: All monkeys are notes. No note is a drum. All cars are notes. All drums are aero planes.
- Statements – 2: Some monkeys are notes. No note is an aero plane. All cars are drums. All drums are aero planes.
- Statements – 3: Some monkeys are notes. No note is a drum. All cars are notes. All drums are aero planes.
- Statements – 4: All monkeys are notes. No note is an aero plane. All cars are drums. All drums are aero planes.
- Statements – 5: All monkeys are notes. No note is a drum. All cars are drums. All drums are aero planes
(a) Only Statements – 1 & 3 & 5
(b) Only Statements – 2 & 3 & 4
(c) Only Statements – 3
(d) Only Statements – 4 & 5
Answer: (a) – Only Statements – 1 & 3 & 5
22. Arun walks 60 miles in the direction of west then he turns to his right and walks further 11 miles, how far is he exactly from the starting point (in miles)?
(a) 51
(b) 61
(c) 39
(d) 41
Answer: (b) – 61
23. If ‘I need water’ is coded as ‘kher der ni’ and ‘Do you need Apple’ is coded as ‘kher fer ka da’, then ‘kher’ is code of?
(a) Need
(b) Apple
(c) I
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) – Need
24. Which of the following means that N is the maternal uncle of M?
(a) N 9 C 7 F 3 M
(b) N 5 Y 7 A 9 M
(c) N 9 P 5 L 7 E 5 M
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) – N 9 P 5 L 7 E 5 M
25. Agra : Yamuna : : Varanasi : ?
(a) Damodar
(b) Betwa
(c) Ganga
(d) Son
Answer: (c) – Ganga
26. Which number will fit both the series of numbers?
Series A: 1, 4, 9, ……
Series B: 1, 8, 27, ……
(a) 42
(b) 36
(c) 64
(d) 25
Answer: (c) – 64
27. Bindu is standing exactly in the middle of a line of girls. Asha is 6 th to the left of Bindu and Ritu is 16 th to Bindu`s right.
What should be the minimum number of girls in the line?
(a) 27
(b) 28
(c) 30
(d) 33
Answer: (d) – 33
28. Window is to pane as book is to
(a) novel
(b) glass
(c) cover
(d) page
Answer: (d) – Page
29. Assertion (A): I came late today.
Reason (R): It was raining.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If A is false but R is true.
Answer: (a) – If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
30. Statement: Should non-vegetarian food be totally banned in our country?
Arguments:
1. Yes. It is expensive and therefore it is beyond the means of most people in our country.
2. No. Nothing should be banned in a democratic country like ours.
(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I nor II is strong
Answer: (b) – Only argument II is strong
31. In each question, a pair of words is given, followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. The candidate is required to choose the pair in which the words bear the sane relationship to each other as the words of the given pair bear. Arrows: Quiver
(a) Fear: Tremble
(b) Money: Bank
(c) Sound: Music
(d) Coin: Mint
Answer: (b) – Money: Bank
32. Statements: No stone is metal. Some metals are papers. All papers are glass.
Conclusions:
I. All stones being glass is a possibility.
II. No stone is paper.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(e) If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Answer: (a) – If only conclusion I follows.
33. RQP, ONM, _, IHG, FED, find the missing letters.
(a) LKJ
(b) CDE
(c) LKI
(d) BAC
Answer: (a) – LKJ
34. If you are a fitness walker, you don’t need to go to a health gym. You also don’t need any fitness equipment for the workout. All you need is a pair of comfortable athletic shoes.
This paragraph supports which of the following statements;
(a) Fitness walking is better than weight lifting
(b) Fitness walking is an effective and convenient form of exercise
(c) Walking outdoors provides more health benefits than walking indoors
(d) Poorly designed shoes can cause foot injuries
Answer: (b) – Fitness walking is an effective and convenient form of exercise
35. Which word is the odd man out?
(a) trivial
(b) unimportant
(c) important
(d) insignificant
Answer: (c) – important
RRB NTPC Reasoning Questions and Answers PDF
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RRB NTPC Reasoning Questions & Answers – Frequently Asked Questions
From which topics, RRB NTPC Reasoning Questions will be asked?
Analytical Reasoning, Coding, and Decoding, Logical Deduction, Logical Problems, Analyzing Arguments, Decision Making, Number Series, Logical Sequence of Words, Assertion and Reason, Critical Reasoning, Blood Relations, Inferences, Puzzles, Data Sufficiency, Venn Diagrams, Statements & Arguments, Statements & Assumptions.
Do Freshers Now provide RRB NTPC Reasoning Questions and Answers With Explanation?
Yes, from freshersnow.com, you can easily download the RRB NTPC Reasoning Questions and Answers PDF along with an explanation.
How many questions will be asked in the NTPC Reasoning section?
The number of Reasoning Questions asked in Stage I are 30 Questions and the Number of Reasoning Questions Asked in Stage II are 35 Questions.
Is there any time limit for the RRB NTPC Reasoning Section?
There is no such time limit for the RRB NTPC Reasoning Section.